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This is a
series of issues I’ve discussed with a good friend of mine who is a
member of the Catholic Church. I’m
publishing it to my website for two reasons:
If you’re studying with someone who is Catholic, I pray
you’ll find some answers to common issues you’ll encounter.
If you’re Catholic yourself, I pray you’ll consider the
scriptures I’ve included with each question and will determine to
examine your religious beliefs. As
always, I stand ready to answer any questions you may have.
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Scripture
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Authority.
I feel that authority lies at the root of most of the
differences between scripture and the practices of the Catholic
Church. In Matthew
28:18 Jesus says that all authority (power in the KJV) is given
Him, both in heaven and on earth.
Therefore, if any man has any religious authority, it
must have been given to him by Jesus.
I’d like for you to consider a few issues I have with
authority as recognized by the Catholic Church:
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The
Bible: I’ve
written an extensive survey of the authority of the Bible
and how we know it is complete.
Please follow this
link and you'll be taken to it: Sola
Scriptura: Why we must use the Bible only.
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Tradition:
The Catholic Church recognizes tradition as being a
valid source of authority, in addition to the Bible.
The Catholic Encyclopedia says the following about
the belief of “Protestants” and Catholics on the issue
of tradition: “Catholics,
on the other hand, hold that there may be, that there is in
fact, and that there must of necessity be certain revealed
truths apart from those contained in the Bible."
Jesus said that the Word of God is truth, and it’s
by this Word that we are sanctified (John 17:17).
As we learned in the study “How we know the Bible
is complete”, the scriptures (the Word of God) are able to
make men complete (2 Timothy 3:16-17).
If the Word of God was incomplete, it would be unable
to make men complete. Therefore,
when Jesus said that the Word of God is truth, it must
contain only truth and it must contain all truth.
In an article I’ve written (and published to this
website) entitled “Why must we use the Bible only?”, I
look at each verse where the word paradosis
(translated “tradition”) is used.
Only 3 of the 13 times the word is used is a positive
idea conveyed. 2 Thessalonians 3:6 says, “Now we command you, brethren, in
the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye withdraw
yourselves from every brother that walketh disorderly, and
not after the tradition which he received of us.”
Anyone who did not follow the tradition they received
of Paul was to be withdrawn from!
The only tradition that’s authorized in this verse
is the tradition the Thessalonian Christians received from
Paul.
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The
“deposit of faith”:
As we learned in our study of the Bible and its
perfection, there is no new revelation from God being given
to man today. As
the Catholic Encyclopedia says, which I quoted in the above
paragraph, Catholics believe that there must of necessity be
revealed truths apart from those contained in the Bible.
Mario Derksen, a Catholic web author, has this to say
about the deposit of faith:
“As I just showed, no doctrine is based on the
Bible alone, but on the deposit of faith (of which the Bible
is merely a part).” (http://www.cathinsight.com/apologetics/infant.htm)
The Catholic Church considers the Bible to be only a
part of the deposit of faith.
Catholicism has changed many times over the centuries
as different ecumenical councils gathered together to
reconsider the teachings of the Catholic Church.
This contradicts scripture and takes authority away
from the Word of God and gives it to men.
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Rightly
dividing the Word of Truth (2 Timothy 2:15):
I was watching EWTN one evening, and the commentator gave
the reason why the Catholic Church forbids contraception:
It violates the 5th commandment (“Thou shalt
not kill”). I’d
like to take a few moments and review why it’s not possible to
violate the 5th commandment today:
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The
Ten Commandments were given to Moses and the nation of
Israel (Exodus 34:27-28).
In Romans 3:19 Paul says, “Now we know that what
things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under
the law…” Since
the commandments were given only
to the nation of Israel, anyone who was not an Israelite was
not subject to the Ten Commandments, since they were not
under that law and therefore were not subject to it.
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Were the Ten Commandments designed to be a
lasting covenant between God and the nation of Israel?
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First,
consider a couple of God’s characteristics
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He
doesn’t change (Malachi 3:6; Hebrews 13:8)
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He
is no respecter of persons (Romans 2:11; Acts 10:34;
Ephesians 6:9; Colossians 3:25; 1 Peter 1:17).
Since God is no respecter of persons and He
doesn’t change, He never has been and never will
be a respecter of persons.
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Doesn’t
the fact that God gave the Ten Commandments to the
nation of Israel but not to the Gentiles show that He is
a respecter of persons? On the surface, it may.
However, if our understanding of an issue
contradicts scripture, it shows us that we don’t
understand the issue under consideration.
Let’s consider the Gentiles during the time the
nation of Israel was under the Ten Commandments:
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Genesis
22:18: God
tells Abraham that in his seed all nations of
the earth would be blessed.
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Exodus
34:27-28: The
Ten Commandments were given to one nation,
the nation of Israel.
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Galatians
3:16: The
seed through whom all nations would be blessed is
Christ.
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Christ
was of the tribe of Judah (Hebrews 7:14), who was
the son of Israel, who was the son of Isaac.
-
So
all nations (Jews and Gentiles) would be blessed
through the seed of Abraham (Christ, whose
forefather was Isaac).
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The
promise made to Abraham in Genesis 22:18 was given
430 years prior to the law given to Moses
(Galatians 3:17).
This verse also tells us that the law was not
able to make the promise of none effect (worthless).
Therefore, the law given to one nation
(Moses and the children of Israel) was unable
to nullify the promise made to Abraham that through
his seed all nations of the earth would be
blessed. So,
the Ten Commandments had to end before the promise
made to Abraham could come to fruition.
I’ll have more to say on this point
shortly.
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Were
the Gentiles without hope during the time the Ten
Commandments were in effect?
This is the essence of the question I asked
under (2) above.
The answer must be no, since God is no
respecter of persons and He doesn’t change.
He could be neither if the Gentiles had hope
prior to the Ten Commandments but had no hope during
the time the Ten Commandments were in effect.
Since the Gentiles were not subject to the
Ten Commandments, how did they have hope during the
time of the Ten Commandments?
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Romans
2:13: It’s
not the hearers of the law that are just before
God, but the doers of the law.
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The
Gentiles could do by nature the things contained
in the law, therefore be doers of the law and
considered just by God (Romans 2:14-15).
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However,
we see in Ephesians 2:11-12 that something changed
for the Gentiles:
They now have no hope!
No longer could they do by nature the things
contained in the law and be considered just by God. What changed?
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Paul
says they were “without Christ” (Ephesians
2:12)
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Paul
uses the phrase “at that time” to indicate
when it was the Gentiles were without hope
(verse 12).
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“At
that time” cannot
refer to the time of the Law of Moses, because
the Jews were also “without Christ” when the
Law of Moses was in effect.
“At that time” must
refer to a time when the Jews had Christ but the
Gentiles didn’t.
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Acts
2:5: The
ones who heard Peter’s first gospel sermon on
the day of Pentecost were Jews.
The ones who were pricked in their hearts
(2:37), who were told what to do (2:38), who
obeyed (2:41) and who were added to the church
by Jesus (2:47) were all Jews.
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On
the day of Pentecost the period of time Paul
calls “at that time” started.
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Acts
10: Peter
preaches to Cornelius, who was a Gentile (Acts
11:1). Cornelius
and his household were obedient (Acts 10:48),
just as some 3,000 Jews were on the day of
Pentecost.
“At that time” has now ended.
The Gentiles have the same hope as the
Jews, and that hope is found only in Christ.
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Now
we understand that hope is found only in Jesus
Christ, not the Law of Moses.
What did Jesus do to the Law of Moses when He
died on the cross?
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Matthew
5:18: “For
verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth
pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise
pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”
Jesus says that one jot or one tittle
would not pass from the law until all be fulfilled. The
word “until” is key:
It is a time-limiting word.
When you say you’ll be on Okinawa until
July 2005, I understand you to mean that
you’ll no longer be on Okinawa in August 2005.
“Until” tells me how long you’ll be on
this island. (My friend and I live on Okinawa. I used this example to show him what is meant by the word
“until”.)
“Until” in Matthew 5:18 tells us that
the Law of Moses was destined to end, and that
its ending would happen when all had been
fulfilled.
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John
19:28: “After
this, Jesus knowing that all things were now
accomplished, that the scripture might be
fulfilled, saith, I thirst.”
Jesus knew that all things had been
accomplished that the scripture might be
fulfilled.
At that moment the Law of Moses was
abolished and ceased being a valid covenant
between God and man.
No longer could the Jews do the things
written in the law or the Gentiles do by nature
the things contained in the law and be
considered just by God.
Justification is no longer by doing the
deeds of the law but it is now by Christ!
(Please review other resources I’ve
published to this site to consider justification
in more detail.)
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What
are the consequences of attempting to keep any part of
the Law of Moses today?
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Galatians
5:4: “Christ
is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you
are justified by the law; ye are fallen from
grace.” Christ
has become of no effect for the Catholic Church due
to its doctrine being based on elements of the old
law. This
is true for the Catholic Church and any other
individual or religious organization that bases its
doctrine upon any part of the old law.
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James
2:9-10: “For
whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend
in one point, he is guilty of all.
For he that said, Do not commit adultery,
said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no
adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a
transgressor of the law.”
The Catholic Church is guilty of the entire
old law, because it attempts to keep some parts of
the law of Moses but not others.
The Catholic Church doesn’t teach that one
should keep the Sabbath day holy, but that
commandment was also one of the Ten Commandments
given to Moses on Mt. Sinai.
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What
purpose does the Old Testament serve today?
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Romans
15:4: “For
whatsoever things were written aforetime were
written for our learning, that we through patience
and comfort of the scriptures might have hope.”
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1
Corinthians 10:11:
“Now all these things happened unto them
for examples: and they are written for our
admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are
come.”
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In
these two passages we see that we are to learn from
the things recorded in the Old Testament, but the OT
has ceased being a valid covenant between God and
man and no longer serves as a source of religious
authority today.
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Petra
and Petros: We spent some
time looking up these two words in a Greek New Testament, a
concordance and a Bible dictionary.
I’d like to review what we learned.
-
Definitions
(from Vine’s expository
dictionary):
Petra
denotes "a mass of rock," as distinct from Petros,
"a detached stone or boulder," or a stone that might
be thrown or easily moved.
-
Matthew
16:18: “And I say
also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will
build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against
it.” The Catholic
Church uses this verse as justification for its teaching that
the pope holds the office Peter once held, with Peter being the
rock upon which Jesus would build His church.
The Greek word translated “rock” in Matthew 16:18 is Petra,
which refers to a massive boulder and a firm foundation.
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John
1:42: “And he
brought him to Jesus. And when Jesus beheld him, he said, Thou
art Simon the son of Jona: thou shalt be called Cephas, which is
by interpretation, A stone.” The word translated Cephas is Kephas,
or “stone”.
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The
Catholic Church makes a connection between Jesus’ giving Peter
the name “Cephas” and the rock He mentions in Matthew 16:18. In his website Mario Derksen explains the Catholic Church’s
belief regarding the meaning of Petra
and Petros: “With that in mind, namely, that Simon is the Greek Petros
and the Aramaic Cephas, we can now proceed to further
clarify who is the rock of Matthew 16:18 upon whom or which the
Church is built. Now, the Aramaic cephas means
"rock," and "rock" ONLY; it does NOT mean
"stone." Therefore, we conclude that when Jesus said
that Simon was now Peter, He meant to apply the title
"rock," Petra in Greek, to him, since the other
translation of "Peter" is Cephas, which means "rock."
So Christ built His Church "upon this rock"--Peter.
The reason Jesus did not call Simon Petra is very simple:
the word Petra has a feminine ending because it is a
feminine noun. It is not appropriate to give a male person a
female name. So Jesus makes this female noun "male" by
switching the female -a ending into the male -os
ending, so that the Greek word "rock" can be applied
to Simon. Again, we know that Jesus means to call Peter ROCK and
not STONE because in Aramaic He calls him Cephas, which
can only mean "rock" and not Evna, which is the
Aramaic name for "stone," and because he could have
called him Lithos instead, the Greek word for
"stone," which even possesses a male ending
already.” (http://www.cathinsight.com/apologetics/adventism/peter.htm)
So according to the Catholic Church, the reason Jesus
called Peter the Aramaic Cephas (Greek Petros, a stone that is easily moved) and not Petra (a massive boulder) is because it would have been
inappropriate for Him to assign a name with a feminine ending to
Peter, who was a man. There
are a few problems with this reasoning:
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Natural
gender (Grammar points taken from William Mounce’s Basics
of Biblical Greek, page 24):
The Catholic Church has misinterpreted these verses
because of their insistence that the gender of the noun used
to describe Peter match his gender. This is called natural gender. Natural gender means that a word takes
on the gender of the object it represents. In Greek, pronouns follow
natural gender but nouns
for the most part do not. Both Petros and Petra
are nouns! In Greek, these words generally do not
follow natural gender. For example, the Greek noun for
sin is hamartia. This is a feminine noun. However, we
all understand that this word may be used to describe the
state of either a man or a woman. Hamartia does
not follow natural gender when it describes the sinful state
of a man (rather than a woman). In a similar fashion,
the nouns Petros and Petra are used to
describe characteristics
of a person regardless of their gender. Petros
was used to describe Peter because he manifested the
characteristics of a small pebble.
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Other
uses of Petra:
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1
Corinthians 10:4: “And
did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank
of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock
was Christ.” “Rock”
is the Greek Petra,
and Paul states plainly that this Rock was Jesus Christ.
However, Jesus was a man (i.e. of the masculine
gender)! The
fact that Paul uses Petra (a feminine noun) to describe Jesus (a man) shows that it is
unnecessary for nouns to follow natural gender in the
Greek language. The
noun describes a characteristic of the person.
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1
Peter 2:7-8: “Unto
you therefore which believe he is precious:
but unto them which be disobedient, the stone
which the builders disallowed, the same is made the head
of the corner, And a stone of stumbling, and a rock of
offence, even to them which stumble at the word, being
disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed.”
Petra
is translated “rock” in these verses.
Acts 4:10-11 tells us specifically who is this
“head of the corner”:
“Be it known unto you all, and to all
the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ
of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the
dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you
whole. This
is the stone which was set at nought of you builders,
which is become the head of the corner.”
So again, we have the feminine Petra
being used to describe Jesus Christ, emphasizing the
fact that the gender of a Greek noun does not need to
match the gender of the one it describes.
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So
in these verses and the way the Catholic Church interprets them
we see that the entire superstructure of the Catholic Church is
based on error. Jesus
did not build His church upon Peter, He built it upon the
confession Peter made in Matthew 16:16.
I’ve gone over this passage in Matthew in detail in my
article published elsewhere on my website. Follow this link
and you'll be taken to it.
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Worship:
Jesus tells us that God is a Spirit, and those who worship
Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth (John 4:23-24).
Worship in spirit and in truth characterizes true worshipers
of God. Since Jesus
tells us there are true
worshipers of God, there must also be false
worshipers of God. There
are three possible “varieties” of false worshipers:
One who worships in spirit but not in truth, one who worships
in truth but not in spirit, or one who doesn’t worship in either
spirit or truth. We’ve
discussed the coordinating conjunction “and” several times in
our studies. As you
remember, “and” joins two words or phrases of equal grammatical
value (Merriam-Webster’s dictionary).
To be a true worshiper one must worship in both spirit and in
truth. The Old
Testament records examples of men who chose to worship God they way
they wished and not according to His commandments.
Nadab
and Abihu (Leviticus 10:1,2) chose to use an unauthorized kind
of fire and paid dearly for it.
Cain
must have known what God expect of him in worship, but chose to
disobey. Genesis 4:5-7
records the fact that God did not respect Cain’s offering, and
telling Cain that he would be accepted if he did well.
Since we cannot look to the OT for religious authority, we
must seek to understand how God commands us to worship Him today by
studying the New Testament. However,
we can look to the examples of those in the OT who were disobedient
to the commandments God gave them to learn God’s attitude toward
those who disobey His commandments today.
We can do this because God doesn’t change!
He is just as displeased with those who disobey His
commandments today as He was with those who were disobedient during
the time of the Old Testament.
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Use
of religious titles and garments:
The Catholic Church is known for its use of religious
titles and garments among the leaders of that organization.
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Luke
20:47: “Then
in the audience of all the people he said unto his
disciples, Beware of the scribes, which desire to walk in
long robes, and love greetings in the markets, and the
highest seats in the synagogues, and the chief rooms at
feasts; Which devour widows' houses, and for a shew make
long prayers: the same shall receive greater damnation.”
Jesus warned them of the scribes, and one thing that
characterized them was their desire to look religious in
their long robes.
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Matthew
23:5-7: “But
all their works they do for to be seen of men: they make
broad their phylacteries, and enlarge the borders of their
garments, And love the uppermost rooms at feasts, and the
chief seats in the synagogues, And greetings in the markets,
and to be called of men, Rabbi, Rabbi.”
Again, Jesus condemns the scribes and Pharisees for
the works they did to be seen of men.
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Matthew
23:8,9: “But
be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your Master, even Christ;
and all ye are brethren.
And call no man your father upon the earth: for one
is your Father, which is in heaven.”
This is the continuation of Jesus’ condemnation of
the scribes and Pharisees.
He tells His disciples to call no man “Father”
upon the earth, for they have one Father, which is in
heaven. As I
understand it, even the lowest-ranking member of the
Catholic clergy is called “Father”.
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Psalm
111:9: “He
sent redemption unto his people: he hath commanded his
covenant for ever: holy and reverend is his name.”
The name “reverend” belongs only to the Lord.
Again, it’s not at all uncommon to hear members of
the Catholic clergy and many protestant denominations
referred to as “reverend” by their peers and
congregants.
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Music:
We spent a great deal of time considering the use of
music in NT worship. I’d
like to review how we determined that the use of instrumental
music in worship renders worship vain:
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Moses:
Again, we can use OT examples to determine how God
expects us to respond to His commandments today.
Let’s consider a couple of points from Moses’
life:
-
Exodus
17:1-7: God
commanded Moses to take his rod and strike the rock,
after which water would flow from it.
Moses obeyed God’s commandment.
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Numbers
20:1-13: God
commanded Moses to take his rod and speak to the rock,
after which water would flow from it.
However, Moses took his rod and struck it just as
he did in Exodus 17.
Was God pleased?
Absolutely not!
In verse 12 we learn that Moses would not be
permitted to take the children of Israel into the
promised land because of his disobedience.
Numbers 27:12-14 says, “And the LORD said unto
Moses, Get thee up into this mount Abarim, and see the
land which I have given unto the children of Israel. And when thou hast seen it, thou also shalt be gathered unto
thy people, as Aaron thy brother was gathered.
For ye rebelled against my commandment in the
desert of Zin, in the strife of the congregation, to
sanctify me at the water before their eyes: that is the
water of Meribah in Kadesh in the wilderness of Zin.”
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In
these two passages we learn much about God and our
response to His commandments.
When God gives us an explicit commandment (e.g.
speak to the rock), it is accompanied by an implicit
commandment (e.g. nothing else will do).
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Since
God doesn’t change, if He’s given us an explicit
commandment in the New Testament with regards to music in
our worship to Him, it’s accompanied by the implicit
commandment that He will not be pleased with anything else.
What commandment has He given us?
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Ephesians
5:19: “Speaking
to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs,
singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord”
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Colossians
3:16: “Let
the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom;
teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns
and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts
to the Lord.”
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Both
verses where music in NT worship is addressed commands the
use of vocal music (specifically singing).
The Greek word laleo
(translated “speaking” in Ephesians 5:19) requires the
use of the voice to utter articulate sounds.
Again, notice where the “ands” are used in these
verses. The use
of instrumental music in the worship of the Catholic Church
renders its worship vain, since the authority for such use
could come from only two places:
the Old Testament or the commandments of men.
As we’ve seen, we cannot look to the Old Testament
for religious authority today, and Jesus stated plainly that
the commandments of men taught as doctrine renders worship
vain (Matthew 15:9).
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The
Lord’s Supper: We
spent a good deal of time studying the New Testament passages
that deal with the Lord’s Supper.
I’ll briefly review what we learned.
-
Frequency:
Acts 20:7 reads, “And upon the first day of the
week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul
preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and
continued his speech until midnight.”
In this verse Luke reveals a frequency and a purpose
for the disciples meeting together.
They came together on the first day of the week to
break bread. Paul
preached to them during this gathering. As I understand the practice of the Catholic Church, the
“eucharist” is made available to the members nearly
every day of the week, if not every day of the week.
It may seem like an insignificant thing to us, how
often we partake of the Lord’s Supper.
The Catholic Church is not the only religious
organization that observes the Lord’s Supper on a day or
days other than that authorized by scripture.
Many “Protestant” organizations observe it once a
month or less often. We
have an example in the Old Testament of how the Lord feels
about changing the commandments He has given us regarding
what day to do some things.
Exodus 16 reveals the commandments God gave the
children of Israel regarding the collection of manna.
They were to gather only enough for one day, except
on Friday, when they gathered enough for two days.
If they gathered more than one-day’s worth of manna
on any day other than Friday, the excess spoiled.
So God gave them a specific day to gather more than
one-day’s worth of manna. They couldn’t collect more than one-day’s worth on any
day other than Friday.
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Who
is to partake of the bread and the fruit of the vine? Matthew 26:26-28 says, “And as they were eating, Jesus took
bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the
disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body.
And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to
them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of
the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission
of sins.” Jesus
states specifically that the disciples were to all drink of
the fruit of the vine.
Likewise, each disciple was to partake of the
unleavened bread. This
is contrary to the common practice in the Catholic Church
for the members to partake of the bread, but only the clergy
to partake of the fruit of the vine.
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Transubstantiation:
This was an interesting topic of discussion during
our studies. Again,
I’d like to review the reasons why transubstantiation is
not a scriptural doctrine:
-
John
chapter 6: This
is the passage that is commonly used to support the
doctrine of transubstantiation. In verses 51-53 Jesus says, “I am the living bread which
came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he
shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is
my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
The Jews therefore strove among themselves,
saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say
unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and
drink his blood, ye have no life in you.”
Many of His disciples who were in His presence
when He said these words misunderstood them.
Verse 60 says, “Many therefore of his
disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is an
hard saying; who can hear it?”, and verse 66, “From
that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no
more with him.” The
key to understanding this passage is found in verses
61-63: “When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at
it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up
where he was before?
It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh
profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they
are spirit, and they are life.”
Jesus Himself states that the flesh profits
nothing. We
must consume the words Jesus spoke in order to have
life. He
asks them a question, “What and if ye shall see the
Son of man ascend up where he was before?”
If they were required to eat His flesh and drink
His blood, when His body returned to heaven they would
have no hope! His
body would no longer be available for them to consume.
He then tells them that it’s not the flesh that
profits, but the spirit. We will always be able to consume His words, even after His
body returned to heaven.
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Matthew
26:26-28: “And
as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it,
and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said,
Take, eat; this is my body.
And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it
to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; For this is my
blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for
the remission of sins.”
You’ve most likely heard that Jesus’ use of
the word “is” indicates that the bread and fruit of
the vine were actually His body.
I used the example of a handwritten map to my
home to illustrate why this isn’t the case.
If I were to draw a map to my house I’d likely
draw some intersecting lines and rectangular shapes to
represent the streets and buildings one would encounter
along the way to my house.
However, after I drew the actual rectangle that
represented my house, when I was giving directions to
you I’d probably point to that rectangle and say,
“This is my house”.
We all understand that the rectangle isn’t my
house, but it represents my house and gives you
directions to find it.
Paul speaks of the purpose of the Lord’s Supper
in 1 Corinthians 11:23-25:
“For I have received of the Lord that which
also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same
night in which he was betrayed took bread:
And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and
said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for
you: this do in remembrance of me.
After the same manner also he took the cup, when
he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in
my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in
remembrance of me.”
When we partake of the Lord’s Supper we
remember the sacrifice Jesus made on our behalf.
We don’t actually consume his flesh and blood,
but unleavened bread and grape juice that represent His
flesh and blood.
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Acts
15:28,29: “For
it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon
you no greater burden than these necessary things; That
ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood,
and from things strangled, and from fornication: from
which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye
well.” The
first century church was dealing with Judaizing teachers
(i.e. men who said they had to follow certain tenets of
the Old Testament in order to be saved).
The apostles and elders in Jerusalem sent a
letter to them by Paul, Barnabas, Judas and Silas,
instructing them on things to avoid.
These four things are found in verses 28 and 29
of Acts 15. Note
one of the things they were to abstain from:
blood!
It would have been impossible for the first
century church (and for us today) to abide by these
instructions if the fruit of the vine was changed into
blood each first day of the week.
God isn’t going to give His children a
commandment in one part of the scriptures that makes
impossible keeping a different commandment in another
part of the scriptures.
This is another proof that transubstantiation is
a doctrine of men.
-
Romans
6:9,10: “Knowing
that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more;
death hath no more dominion over him.
For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but
in that he liveth, he liveth unto God.”
Paul said that Jesus died unto sin once.
His body was broken at His death.
If His body is broken on a weekly basis then He
died to sin more than once.
Again, the doctrine of transubstantiation
contradicts scripture and reveals itself to be a
doctrine of men.
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Use
of images: I’ve
gone “round and round” with several Catholics about the
reason for the images one sees so commonly in Catholic
churches. I’ve
decided that in most cases it’s not fruitful to address
the reason for
their presence, but it’s more effective to address why
they’re there at all.
Romans 1:20-23 says, “For the invisible things of
him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being
understood by the things that are made, even his eternal
power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because
that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God,
neither were thankful; but became vain in their
imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image
made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted
beasts, and creeping things.”
Paul says that these people professed themselves to
be wise, but became fools and changed the glory of God into
an image made like to corruptible man.
Paul never addresses the reason
for the existence of the image, he simply condemns its
existence at all! He
says that those who make such images have become fools.
Nobody knows what Jesus looked like.
The only physical description we have of Him is found
in Isaiah’s messianic prophecy in chapter 53.
Isaiah 53:2 says, “For he shall grow up before him
as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he
hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him,
there is no beauty that we should desire him.”
Every picture or image I’ve seen of Jesus is that
of an incredibly handsome man.
This is contrary to the sole physical description we
have of Him in the scriptures, which gives us no details of
His appearance other than it was one we wouldn’t consider
beautiful.
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Qualifications
for religious leaders. One
reason we started our series of lessons was my friend’s disgust
with the pedophilia among the Catholic clergy that came to light a
couple of years ago. One
of the first things we did was to review the qualifications of
bishops (also known as elders or overseers in the NT).
These qualifications are found in the following verses
(I’ve highlighted in red the
qualifications that the Catholic clergy fails to meet):
-
1
Timothy 3:1-7: “This
is a true saying, if a man desire the office of a bishop, he
desireth a good work. A
bishop then must be blameless, the
husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour,
given to hospitality, apt to teach; Not given to wine, no
striker, not greedy of filthy lucre; but patient, not a brawler,
not covetous; One that ruleth well his
own house, having his children in
subjection with all gravity; (For
if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take
care of the church of God?) Not a novice, lest being
lifted up with pride he fall into the condemnation of the devil.
Moreover he must have a good report of them which are
without; lest he fall into reproach and the snare of the
devil.”
-
Titus
1:5-9: “For this
cause left I thee in Crete, that thou shouldest set in order the
things that are wanting, and ordain elders in every city, as I
had appointed thee: If
any be blameless, the husband of one
wife, having faithful children
not accused of riot or unruly.
For a bishop must be blameless, as the steward of God;
not selfwilled, not soon angry, not given to wine, no striker,
not given to filthy lucre; But a lover of hospitality, a lover
of good men, sober, just, holy, temperate; Holding fast the
faithful word as he hath been taught, that he may be able by
sound doctrine both to exhort and to convince the gainsayers.”
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If
the Catholic clergy were permitted to marry and have children,
it’s likely (in my opinion) that many of the problems
they’ve experienced recently would never have materialized.
However, even if there was never a case of child abuse
among the Catholic clergy, they still would not meet the
qualifications for a bishop as Paul outlined in 1 Timothy 3 and
Titus 1.
-
Mary:
We spent some time discussing Mary and the children she had
other than Jesus. Here
are the verses that support the fact she had other children:
-
Matthew
1:24-25: “Then
Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had
bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn
son: and he called his name JESUS.” The Bible didn’t say that Joseph never had sexual relations
with Mary (i.e. “knew” her in the KJV).
Matthew states that he didn’t have sexual relations
with her until she
had brought forth her firstborn son.
Again we have that time-limiting word “until”.
Just as in Matthew 5 where Jesus said that the old law
would not pass away until
all had been fulfilled (which happened when Jesus died on the
cross), the use of the word “until” in Matthew 1 tells us
that Joseph and Mary did not have sexual relations until Jesus
was born, but afterwards they engaged in the usual sexual
relationship between husband and wife.
-
Mark
6:2-3: “And when
the sabbath day was come, he began to teach in the synagogue:
and many hearing him were astonished, saying, From whence hath
this man these things? and what wisdom is this which is given
unto him, that even such mighty works are wrought by his hands?
Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother
of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his
sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.” In these verses we learn that Jesus had half-brothers and
sisters through the relationship between Mary and Joseph.
-
John
7:3-5: “His
brethren therefore said unto him, Depart hence, and go into
Judaea, that thy disciples also may see the works that thou
doest. For there is
no man that doeth any thing in secret, and he himself seeketh to
be known openly. If thou do these things, shew thyself to the
world. For neither did his brethren believe in him.”
Here we learn that, at the time of John 7, His brothers
did not believe in Him. The
point is that Jesus had brothers.
-
Galatians
1:18-19: “Then
after three years I went up to Jerusalem to see Peter, and abode
with him fifteen days. But
other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's
brother.” Again,
James is noted to be the brother of the Lord.
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Baptism:
This is one of the major topics we’ve studied over the past
few months. I’d like
to close this summary of scriptural issues and the Catholic Church
with a review of baptism. Peter
told the Jews on the day of Pentecost that baptism was for the
remission of sins. Acts
2:38 says, “Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized
every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of
sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”
Since baptism is for the remission of sins, the one being
baptized must be in sin in order for baptism to be of any use to
them. However, we also
have the coordinating conjunction “and” used in Acts 2:38. Here, “and” connects repentance and baptism, making them
of equal value. So the
one being baptized must be in sin, and they must also repent of
their sin in order for baptism to be of any use to them.
I’d like to consider the scriptures as they reveal to us
who is to be baptized, how one is to be baptized, and then compare
these requirements with the teachings of the Catholic Church.
-
Who
is to be baptized? As
you know, the Catholic Church practices infant baptism.
So, in order for this baptism to be valid, two questions
must be answered “yes”.
I’d like to address each of these questions next.
-
Question
1: Is an infant
in sin? In
order for infant baptism to be valid, the infant must be in
sin, since the purpose of baptism is for the remission of
sins.
-
Romans
7:8,9: “But
sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me
all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was
dead. For I
was alive without the law once: but when the commandment
came, sin revived, and I died.”
Paul wrote the book of Romans, and he lived under
the OT when the Law of Moses was in effect, and he lived
during the time when the OT was abolished and Christ’s
law came into effect.
The point is that Paul never lived a day in his
life when some religious law was not in effect, either
the law of Moses or the law of Christ.
But Paul says that he
was alive without the law once, but when the commandment
came, sin revived and he
died. When
was Paul alive without the law?
Consider what he says in Romans 5:13:
“For until the law sin was in the world: but
sin is not imputed when there is no law.” What was the purpose of the law?
Romans 7:7 says, “What shall we say then? Is
the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but
by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had
said, Thou shalt not covet.”
Galatians 3:19 says, “Wherefore then serveth
the law? It was added because of transgressions, till
the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and
it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.”
In these two verses we see the purpose of the old
law. Sin
was being committed by mankind prior to the law, but God
didn’t hold men accountable for something they
couldn’t understand or know about Him.
However, when the law came (the example Paul uses
is coveting in Romans 7:7), mankind was now held
accountable for something they could understand.
It is not possible for an infant to understand
the law of Christ (under which we live today).
Do infants and children lie?
Of course they do. Is it ever not wrong to lie?
No, it’s not.
John tells us the fate of all liars in Revelation
21:8: “But
the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and
murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and
idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the
lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the
second death.” Are
infants and children held accountable for the things
they do that are contrary to God’s law?
No, they’re not, because as Paul said in Romans
5, sin is not taken into account when there is no law.
Paul was alive without the law once.
This was the period of time in his life when he
could not understand the commandment that had been
given. But,
as he matured, “the commandment came”, sin revived
and he died a spiritual death.
However, before this time he was spiritually
alive because God didn’t hold him accountable for the
things he could not understand.
So we see that if an infant is in sin, it’s not
his/her own sin. It
must be the sin of another.
God doesn’t hold one accountable for something
they cannot understand.
-
So
if an infant is in sin and in need of baptism for the
remission of sins, it must be the sin of another.
Is an infant bearing the guilt of another’s
sin? Ezekiel
18:20 answers this question:
“The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son
shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall
the father bear the iniquity of the son: the
righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and
the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.”
This verse lies to rest the concept of original
sin. Ezekiel
plainly states that the son shall not bear the iniquity
of the father, neither shall the father bear the
iniquity of the son.
The soul that sins is the one that shall die.
We aren’t held accountable for the sins of our
parents. Original
sin is a doctrine that is of human origin, not divine.
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We’ve
seen in the two points above that the answer to the
first question must be “no”.
Infants are not held accountable for things they
do wrong but cannot understand, and they do not inherit
the sins of their parents.
So, infant baptism must
be a doctrine of men since infants are not in sin and
therefore have no need of baptism for the remission of
sins.
-
Question
2: Can an
infant fulfill the requirements for baptism as outlined in
the New Testament? To
answer this question we looked for the word “and” in the
verses that address baptism, to see what else is of equal
importance.
-
Mark
16:16: “He
that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he
that believeth not shall be damned.”
In this verse Jesus tells us two things are
necessary for salvation:
belief and baptism.
One who believes but isn’t baptized cannot be
saved, just as the one who is baptized but doesn’t
believe. Paul
tells us how one develops faith:
by hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17).
An infant is incapable of belief, since
understanding language is required for belief and
infants cannot understand language.
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Acts
2:38: “Then
Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one
of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of
sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy
Ghost.” Peter
makes repentance just as important as baptism for the
forgiveness of sins.
In order to repent one must be in sin, and one
must have godly sorrow.
2 Corinthians 7:10 says, “For godly sorrow
worketh repentance to salvation not to be repented of:
but the sorrow of the world worketh death.”
Anyone who has observed an infant after the
infant has committed some wrong knows that they don’t
experience sorrow.
An understanding of sin and the moral consequence
of sin (one’s spiritual death and the requirement for
Jesus’ physical death for one to have any hope of
salvation) is required for one to have godly sorrow. Infants are incapable of understanding the moral consequence
of sin. Therefore,
they are incapable of godly sorrow and repentance (since
godly sorrow works repentance).
Since they are incapable of repentance they
cannot fulfill the requirements Peter establishes in
Acts 2:38 for the forgiveness of sins.
-
Just
as with question 1, the answer to question 2 must be
“no”. An infant is incapable of fulfilling the requirements for
baptism as outlined in the New Testament.
-
As
we saw in our studies regarding baptism, the Catholic
Church’s practice regarding infant baptism is contrary to
scripture. Infants are not in sin and they cannot fulfill the
requirements for baptism as outlined in the New Testament.
-
The
manner of baptism. The
Catholic Church practices sprinkling or pouring in their
“baptism” of infants. Next,
let’s consider the NT scriptures regarding manner of baptism.
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Acts
8:35-38: “Then
Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture,
and preached unto him Jesus.
And as they went on their way, they came unto a
certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what
doth hinder me to be baptized?
And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine
heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that
Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they
went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch;
and he baptized him.”
In this passage we learn the manner of baptism:
both Philip and the eunuch went down into the water
and Philip baptized him.
A body of water large enough for the one being
baptized to be completely immersed is required for NT
baptism to take place.
One who believes, has repented of their sins and has
confessed their belief in Jesus as the Son of God is a
candidate for baptism.
Any body of water large enough for them to be
completely immersed is sufficient for them to satisfy this
command. This
could be a bathtub where the one baptizing stands to the
side and immerses the one being baptized or a body of water
large enough for both the baptizer and the one being
baptized to enter.
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Romans
6:3-6: “Know
ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus
Christ were baptized into his death?
Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into
death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by
the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in
newness of life. For
if we have been planted together in the likeness of his
death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection:
Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him,
that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we
should not serve sin.”
Paul tells us that baptism is a burial (Greek sunthapto, to bury together with), that this burial takes place with
Jesus by baptism into death, that we are to walk in newness
of life after be raised from the grave of baptism, and that
this planting together with Jesus is required in order for
us to be raised with Him in the likeness of His
resurrection.
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Colossians
2:10-12: “And
ye are complete in him, which is the head of all
principality and power: In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made
without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the
flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen
with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath
raised him from the dead.” I once read a Catholic commentator use this verse to
de-emphasize the importance of baptism, saying that baptism
is a symbolic circumcision like the covenant of circumcision
given to Abraham. However,
this fails to justify the act of sprinkling or pouring in
place of immersion. Paul
says that we are “buried with Him in baptism”.
In Romans 6 he uses the phrase “buried with Him by
baptism”. So, we see in these two passages how we are buried together
with Jesus into death:
by baptism.
-
I’d
like to ask a few questions about Jesus’ experience as we
close this section on the manner of baptism:
-
Death
-
Did
Jesus die? Yes.
-
Are
we to die? Yes. Galatians 2:20 says, “I am crucified with Christ:
nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in
me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I
live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me,
and gave himself for me.”
Just as Jesus was crucified, we are to be
crucified with Him (self must die daily). Luke 9:23,24 says, “And he said to them all, If any man
will come after me, let him deny himself, and take
up his cross daily, and follow me.
For whosoever will save his life shall lose
it: but whosoever will lose his life for my sake,
the same shall save it.”
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Burial
-
Was
Jesus buried? Yes.
In what was He buried?
A tomb.
Was any part of His body exposed to the world
outside of the tomb after His burial?
No. A
large stone was placed over the opening and His body
was completely encased in earth.
-
After
our spiritual death, are we to be buried?
Yes. With
whom are we to be buried?
Jesus. (See
Romans 6 and Colossians 2 above.)
If we are buried with Jesus, will any part of our bodies remain exposed to the
outside world during our burial?
No. His
entire body was entombed, and if we are buried with
Him, our entire body will be entombed as well.
-
Resurrection
-
Was
Jesus’ body resurrected after His burial?
Yes.
-
Will
our bodies be resurrected after our burial?
Yes. We
will emerge from the watery grave of baptism just as
Jesus emerged from the earthly grave of His tomb.
-
Change
-
Was
Jesus different after His resurrection?
Yes. His
body was now alive, when it had been dead prior to
His resurrection.
-
Will
we be different after our “resurrection” from
the grave of baptism?
Yes. Our
sins are forgiven and we are to walk in newness of
life, as Paul stated in Romans 6.
-
As
we see in these verses, only the act of baptism by
immersion fulfills the requirements one must meet in
order to be raised in the likeness of Jesus’
resurrection when He comes again.
The manner of “baptism” practiced by the
Catholic Church is contrary to the NT scriptures.
-
As
one can see from this brief study, the teachings of the Catholic
Church with regards to original sin, infant baptism and
sprinkling rather than immersion are contrary to the teachings
of the New Testament. Since Peter said that baptism is for the remission of sins
and Jesus said that one must be baptized in order to be saved,
failure to follow the commandments the Lord has given us
regarding baptism will result in our eternal damnation.
If
you’re studying with a Catholic, I pray this summary has given you
some tools to use in your study. If
you’re a Catholic and have questions about your religion, I pray this
summary has answered the questions you have.
If you didn’t have any questions before you read this article I
pray some questions have entered your mind.
We must be like the Bereans and search the scriptures daily to
see if the things we’re hearing are true (Acts 17:11).
The Lord has been so gracious to us in giving us the instructions
we need in order to obey His will and be pleasing to Him.
He didn’t leave us “groping in the dark”, hoping to stumble
onto His will and forced to spend our entire lives wondering if we’ve
done what He’s commanded. As
I mentioned in my opening, I stand ready to help you in any way I can
and to answer any question you may have.
If I’m unable to answer it, I’ll research the scriptures and
find the answer or refer you to someone who can answer it.
I pray you have a fruitful study of God’s word.
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