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Law
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As we continue our study of the child of God and grace, we must understand the concept of law as taught in the New Testament. Again, this is a source of much confusion in the religious world today. Some turn to Romans 6:14 ("For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.") and justify their position that we are not under any religious law today. But Paul also states "I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin." (Romans 7:25) So within a matter of a few verses Paul states that we are not under law but under grace, but that he served the law of God with his mind. So, are we under no law whatsoever today, or are we under a different law than the one the nation of Israel received? Let's look to the scriptures and determine the answer. DEFINITIONS
One can see that the concept of "law" and obedience to law is complex. Before we proceed I'd like to list the definition given for nomos and the usages behind it:
So what must be true for us to be under no religious law of any kind today?
If we can show each of these to be true, then the statement that we are under no religious law of any kind today will be proven true. However, if we can find a commandment, custom, law, or example with an implied or actual requirement for obedience, then we are (by definition) under religious law today. Law of... Everyone is familiar with the law of Moses. We've studied the group of people to whom this law was given, and understand this group to be the nation of Israel. We also understand that this law ceased being a valid covenant between God and man at the death of Jesus. Should you wish to review this topic please link to my study on the Old and New Covenants. However, is the law of Moses the only law we find recorded in the scriptures? Let's see if there are any other scriptures that record a "law of..." someone/something other than Moses. Since we understand the purpose of the OT today is for our learning and not for religious authority I'm going to limit this discussion to the NT. However, there are several scriptures recording a "law of..." in the OT. For example, Leviticus 7:37 records 6 laws: "This is the law of the burnt offering, of the meat offering, and of the sin offering, and of the trespass offering, and of the consecrations, and of the sacrifice of the peace offerings;". These were all part of the law given to Moses on Sinai, and therefore were a part of the law of Moses. Each of them was a commandment unto itself, and would have to have been obeyed before an Israelite could be considered faithful to the entire law of Moses. James tells us of the need to keep each part of the law of Moses to be considered faithful in chapter 2, verses 10 and 11 of his letter: "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law." Now lets turn to the New Testament. In the covenant under which we live today we read of the following laws:
Wow! 17 different laws spoken of in the NT! Recall how Leviticus 7:37 recorded 6 different laws, each of which was a part of the law of Moses? Our next task is to determine whether each of these 17 represent a part of the law of Moses, or are they something different. If they are part of the law of Moses, they don't apply to us today. If they are not, then we must determine their applicability to us today. I have listed each of the above laws in the table below. In the second column you will find a "Y" or "N". The passages that refer to the law of Moses will have a "Y" in the second column. If a passage does not refer to this covenant, there will be an "N". Some laws may have been part of the law of Moses and have been brought forward to us today by Christ or one of the apostles or prophets who recorded the words of God through the Holy Spirit. If we find such a law, it will have a "Y" and "N" listed after it. Rather than re-type the name of each law, I'll refer to it by its number in the above list: Passages 1, 3, 4, and 15 refer to the law of Moses and do not apply to us today. Passages 2 and 8 refer to the law of the Lord and of God respectively. Should we find any law to which we are subject today such law is of the Lord, so these two passages are straightforward in their meaning. Passage 7 refers to the relationship between a woman and her husband. Paul shows how this principle was part of the law of Moses when he acknowledges his readers as knowing the law of Moses (Romans 7:1). Jesus applies this teaching to us today when He states in Matthew 19:9: "And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery." He closes His instructions to His apostles prior to ascending to heaven with the words, "Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:" (Matthew 28:20). Therefore, each and every commandment He issued during His life on earth applies to us today. Therefore, a woman who marries another while still married to her husband commits adultery (and vice-versa). The meaning of passage 17 is revealed in James 2:8, which says, "If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:" Jesus commands the same in Matthew 19:19: "Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself." So, this passage applies to us today as well. We need to look at a few of the other passages in more detail, but before we do, what have we learned to this point? We are under religious law today! Recall what we had to prove before we could claim that we are under no law today: God must have established nothing for us to obey, we must have received no example, custom, or law to obey, and God must have given us no commandment with an actual or implied requirement for obedience. We've already seen how we are commanded not to put away our spouse for any reason other than fornication and how we are commanded to love our neighbor as ourselves. The fact we've shown two commandments to be valid for us today means we will be unable to show the absence of commandments we must obey. Therefore, we are under a law of God today just as the Jews were prior to the death of Christ. What was the purpose of the law? In Romans 7:7-12 Paul writes, "What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead. For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died. And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death. For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me. Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good." In these verses we learn that the law was not sinful, it was holy. The law made sin known to us ("Nay, I had not know sin, but by the law"). But we learn much about sin in these few verses. Paul tells us that without the law sin was dead! The word "dead" is nekros and means "destitute of force or power, inactive, inoperative". Sin was devoid of power without the law. However, once the commandment came, sin revived. ("Revived, Greek anazao, "to revive, regain strength and vigour") What did sin do with the power it gained? It took "occasion" by the commandment and "wrought in me all manner of concupiscence." The word translated "occasion" is aphorme and means "a place from which a movement or attack is made, a base of operations." Vine's gives a very informative description of the meaning of aphorme. He tells us that aphorme "was used to denote "a base of operations in war.'" When the commandment came, sin set up a base of operations in its war against my soul. In a war, armies use various means to attack the enemy. What means does sin use in its war against the soul? Paul states that it "wrought in me all manner of concupiscence." Katergazomai is translated "wrought" and means "to perform, accomplish, achieve." Epithumia is translated "concupiscence" and means "desire, craving, longing, desire for what is forbidden, lust." So we learn that sin gained it's power through the commandment, set up a base of operations in its war against my soul, and attacked me through every type of evil desire and lust. But this sounds like sin came before lust! Didn't James say that sin comes after lust? Let's read James 1:13-15: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." So James tells us that God doesn't tempt me, my lust does. When my lust has "conceived" sin is born, which brings forth death when it is finished. We understand the concept of physical conception. A sperm and egg join to produce a new life. When my lust and my will join, I conceive sin. This sin brings forth death if unforgiven. But Paul tells us that sin is the source of lust. How does something not yet born produce that which is required for its birth? It cannot! Therefore, the sin that produces lust must be different than the sin that is conceived after lust has joined with ones will. But what is the difference? The sin mentioned by Paul in Romans 7:8 is a force used by Satan in his battle for my soul. This force is lifeless until one is capable of understanding the commandments God has given us. At that point in time, the force of sin gains power and begins its attack against me. The weapons it uses are the lusts that entice me. When my will succumbs to these enticements the act of sin has been conceived and I die spiritually ("For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died." Romans 7:9). But we've already learned that God has given us commandments to obey, and these commandments came before my physical birth. Doesn't this mean that I was born with sin, since Paul states that "when the commandment came...I died.", and the commandment came before my birth? No! Many people misunderstand the difference between the force of sin and the act of sin. We know that the force of sin is alive, because of the lusts we all experience. Paul tells us that this force is the source of lust. These lusts are the source of the temptations that entice me to sin. Now, let's turn to Hebrews 4:14-15. Here we read, "Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession. For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin." What do we learn about Jesus in these verses? He was tempted. But where does temptation come from? One's lust. Where does lust come from? The force of sin. So what does this mean about Jesus? The force of sin was active in His life, just as it is in ours! Not only did He experience enticements to sin just as we, He experienced them to a much greater degree! The Hebrews writer states that He was tempted in all points as we are! "All" and "we" are plural words! "All" tells us that every temptation man can experience was experienced by Jesus. "We" tells us that each of us experience our own set of temptations, but nobody experiences every temptation known to man. There are things that will tempt me but won't tempt you, and vice versa. Jesus experienced them all! Satan was working "overtime" in his efforts to entice Jesus to sin, but failed in his efforts. Jesus lived under the law of Moses, which was given centuries before His birth. However, he didn't sin. He had the force of sin working "overtime" to entice Him to sin, but he didn't allow His will to join with His lust to produce sin (the act). Today, one must be able to understand the commandment before one can willfully disobey it. Prior to the age of accountability the force of sin is powerless. Once one is able to understand the commandment the force of sin revives, attacks through lust, and we die when our will succumbs to the enticement. Infants are sinless (in both senses of the word)! Let's return to our study of law today. Paul mentions 7 different laws in the book of Romans (other than the ones we've reviewed in the above paragraph). We need to understand what he means by the laws of works, faith, the mind, the flesh, the spirit of life in Christ Jesus, of sin and death, and of righteousness. These laws are widely misunderstood in the religious world today. This fact doesn't mean they are beyond our understanding, however. Let's begin with Romans 3:23-27 (numbers 5 and 6 in our list). Here Paul says, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith." Paul asks a question about two different laws: one of works, another of faith. He asks, "Where is boasting then?" ("boasting", Greek kauchesis, "the act of glorying") He tells us the answer: it is excluded. ("excluded", Greek ekkleio, "to shut out") So boasting is shut out, but why? Because it is God who justifies, and He only justifies those who believe in Jesus! (verse 26) I cannot do anything of sufficient good to justify myself. This is the law of works spoken of by Paul. If works were able to justify, then boasting would not be shut out. The law of faith eliminates my glorying in good works. But does the fact that I cannot justify myself before God through the works I do eliminate the need for works? No!! Recall our study of justification. We must manifest faith, works, the grace of God, and the blood of Christ to be declared just by God. To fail to manifest the good works we are commanded to perform renders one unjust before God. So what does this tell us about works? We must have the right attitude about them! They are necessary, but we cannot boast because of them. I cannot proudly proclaim to God, "Look at all the good I've done!" I can only approach Him with the attitude of the unprofitable servant spoken of by Jesus in Luke 17:10. So we now understand that we are not to live by the law of works (that is, to have the attitude regarding works that I can be made just before God solely because of the good I do), but by the law of faith (that is, having faith in the Son of God, which leads me to obedience by which I come into contact with His blood, receive the grace of God, and manifest works with the proper attitude of my unworthiness). Next, let's consider Romans 7:23 (numbers 9 and 10). Here Paul records, "But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members." Our members and our mind are at war with one another, each abiding by a different law. Our members (our flesh, verse 25) are subject to the law of sin, but the mind is to be subject to the law of God (Romans 7:25). ("mind", Greek nous, "the intellectual faculty, the understanding"; flesh, Greek sarx, "the animal nature with cravings which incite to sin") The mind is part of the fleshly being, and is held captive by it. However, the mind does not have to be controlled by the flesh. Remember, the mind and the flesh are at war. In this war the flesh has captured the mind. The mind, however, is still capable of resisting the flesh. Think of a prisoner of war today. The army of country A captures a soldier of country B. His physical body is in the control of the enemy. He can do one of two things: He can resist the attempts of the enemy to bring his mind under their control, or he can submit his mind to their influence. No matter what the enemy does to him, he still has control of his mind! This is true of us in our war with Satan. Satan controls the flesh, but not the mind. The only way Satan gains control of my mind is through my submission to the law of sin, to which my fleshly members are subject. Since the submission of my mind to sin is a voluntary act, I fully deserve the punishment God has in store for me should I so succumb to my fleshly desires. We oftentimes (I would say we nearly always) fail to appreciate the power of the mind. Yes, the battle with sin is furious. But my mind is fully capable of serving the law of God. Not to do so is a willful act and will be grievously punished. So in Romans 7:23 we learn that our flesh is subject to the law of sin, but the mind is to resist our fleshly lusts and serve the law of God. But is the ability of the mind to serve the law of God something it is capable of doing alone? No! Recall Paul's words in Romans 3:23: "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;" Romans 6:23 tells us the fate each one of us deserves: "For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord." So each one who has reached the "age of accountability" (the age at which point one understands the difference between right and wrong) has chosen to do wrong. This choice makes one's mind more than a prisoner--it has ceased serving God and is now a servant of Satan. But how does one free one's mind from Satan's service and return to serving the law of God? Paul tells us in the first few verses of Romans 8. Listen to his words in verses 1 and 2: "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death." The Greek word katakrima is translated "condemnation" and means "damnatory sentence." In the English language today when we speak of a "condemned man" we understand him to be one who has received the death sentence for a certain crime. We occasionally hear of a condemned man having his sentence commuted. But Paul tells us that the sentence of death for those in Christ Jesus has gone far beyond commutation: The one condemned no longer has any penalty at all to pay! There is no condemnation for such a one. His penalty has been paid for him! Paul tells us in Titus 2:14, "Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works." The Greek word lutroo is translated redeem and means, "to redeem, liberate by payment of ransom." So one who is in Christ Jesus and walks after the Spirit has had his ransom paid by Jesus and is no longer under condemnation. Here we see two different laws in effect, one leading to death and the other resulting in payment of one's ransom. Those who have never entered into Christ Jesus, or who have entered into Him and have returned to walking after the flesh, are servants of Satan and subject to the law of sin and death. However, those who have entered into Christ Jesus and walk after the Spirit have had their ransom paid and have been freed from the law of sin and death by the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus. What has happened to the mind of one who has been freed from the law of sin and death? It has been renewed! In chapter 12 of Romans Paul tells us much more about this renewed mind. Verses 1 and 2 say, "I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service. And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God." The renewed mind controls the flesh (the body), which is to be presented a living sacrifice to God. One who continues to satisfy the lusts of the flesh is conformed to the world. However, we are not to be conformed to this world, but be transformed by the renewing of our minds. The Greek word metamorphoo is translated "transformed." The English word "metamorphosis" is derived from metamorphoo. Recall what happens to a caterpillar as it undergoes metamorphosis: It becomes something entirely different than it was. In like fashion one who has been transformed by the renewing of the mind becomes something entirely different than they were. Paul gives us examples of this transformation in the following several verses of Romans 12:
The one who has been transformed by the renewing of their mind is nothing like they were before. In addition, they are nothing like those who are conformed to the world. Rather than thinking of himself first, he has a humble attitude. He looks for opportunities to be friendly to strangers. He has horror for that which is evil, and is cemented to that which is good. He accomplishes his tasks with speed. The love he manifests is sincere, not pretentious. He leads others in bestowing honour upon his fellow man. He is boiling hot in spirit and in service to the Lord. When one seeks to do him harm, he repays them with good and asks God to bless them in his prayers. When a fellow Christian is in need, he considers himself a partner in that need and does all he can to provide for the resolution of the need. He is victorious over evil by the good he does. These are not characteristics of one who is a servant of Satan. Another law recorded by Paul in the book of Romans is the law of righteousness. We read of this law in Romans 9:31 (verses 30-33 for context). Verse 31says, "But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness." What law was the nation of Israel given to follow? The law of Moses. Dikaiosune is translated "righteousness" in verse 31 and refers to "the doctrine concerning the way in which man may attain a state approved of God." Paul compares the state of the Jews with that of the Gentiles in these few verses. We read in verse 30 that the Gentiles attained to righteousness (again, the word is dikaiosune), while the Jews failed to do so. What was different between the two peoples? The Gentiles attained to righteousness by faith, but the Jews failed to do so because they sought it through the works of the law of Moses! But didn't Paul go on to say in Romans 10:5 that the works of the law were necessary ("For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.")? Yes, he did. Don't these two verses contradict each other? Absolutely not! Again, if they don't contradict, they must complement. So what do we learn about the law of Moses in these two verses? There were works that must be done, but they must be done in faith! The Jews sought to attain a right relationship with God through works alone. They were unsuccessful. The Gentiles, on the other hand, didn't have the law of Moses to follow. However, many of them by nature kept the works of the law (Romans 2:12-15), and were "a law unto themselves." When the law of Moses was fulfilled and ceased serving as a valid covenant between God and man, many of the Jews refused to seek a right relationship with God through faith and continued to seek such a relationship by works. However, even when the law of Moses was valid the Jews who sought such a relationship with God by works failed to attain righteousness! So the law of righteousness was valid during the time of the law of Moses, and is valid today. God will consider one righteous when they manifest the requirements necessary for Him to declare them just (faith, works, grace, the blood of Christ). We see that the law of righteousness is a common theme throughout the history of man's relationship with God. During the patriarchal period of time, God revealed his word directly to the patriarchs living at the time (e.g. the commandment given to Cain and Abel regarding the type of sacrifice which would please God). During the Mosaic period of time the Jews had the law of Moses rather than direct revelation to the patriarchs. As we've seen, it wasn't enough for the Jews to keep the works but not have faith. Now that the law of Moses has been fulfilled, are we under any law other than the law of righteousness? Yes! We are under the law of Christ. Today, we are not to hear the words of Moses but those of Christ. Jesus teaches us this truth in John 10:1-16 when He reveals that He is the door, and that none will find salvation except through Him. In John 9 we have recorded one of Jesus' miracles. He healed a man who was blind from birth. This man told others how he was healed, but they refused to listen. The Pharisees told him, "Thou art His disciple, but we are Moses' disciples." (John 9:28) Jesus then tells them that the words of Moses will not bring one to the Father. In John 14:6 Jesus tells us that nobody can come to the Father but by Him. In John 10:5 Jesus says that His sheep will hear no voice other than His. Therefore, those who are truly Jesus' disciples will hear no other voice and will follow only Him. What does He say about those who came before Him? They are thieves and robbers, and His sheep do not hear them! (verse 8) When did Moses live in relation to Jesus? He was before Him! What does one who attempts to live by the law of Moses (either the Jews in the first century or anyone today) make Moses? A thief and a robber! We all know what a thief and a robber is: One who takes something away from another. Any doctrine that steals men away from Jesus is doing exactly what a thief does. Did Moses lead the nation of Israel astray? No! The truths he taught were valid for many years. However, once Jesus fulfilled the law of Moses it ceased serving as a valid covenant between God and man. Therefore, anyone who would listen to Moses' words and not those of Jesus make Moses a "thief and a robber." (In actuality Moses wrote of Jesus. John records Jesus' words in John 5:45 and 46: "Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust. For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me." So, anyone who claims to follow Moses rather than Jesus doesn't actually follow Moses! If they did, they would be disciples of Jesus. Since they were in actuality not following Moses, in many ways they didn't make Moses a "thief and a robber." However, their claim to follow Moses blames Moses for their lack of faith in Jesus.) Moses wasn't guilty of leading the Jews astray. It was their own determination to follow what they wanted to believe that led to their rejection of the Messiah. Today, any doctrine that draws men away from the pure teachings of Jesus is guilty of stealing that soul away from Him. What more can we learn about the law of Christ, under which we live today. Recall from the beginning of our study of law the definition given for nomos: Anything established, anything received by usage, a custom, a law, a command. Therefore, since we are under the law of Christ, any commandment He issued is part of that law. Let's consider a few of these commandments:
I would like to close our study of law with a consideration of 1 John 3:4. Here John writes, "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." Anomia is translated transgresseth and means, "contempt and violation of law, iniquity, wickedness." Many writers of the New Testament tell us that we sin today. Paul, in Romans 3:23, writes, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;", and John records "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us." (1 John 1:8-10) Therefore, since sin is transgression of law and we have all sinned, we have all transgressed law. How can we have transgressed law if we are not subject to law today? We couldn't have! Recall in an earlier study how we stated that taking the teachings of man to their logical conclusion reveals the fallacy of their positions? Again we see this principle in effect. One who teaches that we are not under law today MUST be teaching that we are all sinless! But what did John say we were guilty of doing should we claim sinlessness? Lying! But our lie goes beyond ourselves. We make God a liar when we claim sinlessness! (1 John 1:10) Can you imagine the degree of God's displeasure with one whose claim (if true) makes Him guilty of doing the very thing He hates?! Let's take a step further the necessary conclusions we must make if we are to believe we are not under law.
Need I go any further? Are you thoroughly repulsed yet? The teaching that we are not under law today renders everything in Christianity of no meaning whatsoever! Of whom is this doctrine born? Satan! What verses do people use to support their position that we are under no religious law today? Lets consider a few, and see if they support such a position.
I pray that this study of law has helped you to understand the nature of the commandments we are to obey today. We are not under the law of Moses, of that fact there is no doubt. We've already considered how the law of Moses was given only to the Jews, and therefore the Gentiles were never subject to it. For the Jews, the law of Moses ceased as a valid covenant upon the death of Jesus. However, simply because we are not under the law of Moses does not mean we are not under any law whatsoever! Today, we are under the law of Christ and expected to obey His commandments. Have you done so? If so, I pray you will remain faithful to His commandments so that you may spend eternity with Him in heaven. However, if you have not yet been obedient to His commandments I plead with you to consider the seriousness of your state and determine to obey Him before it is eternally too late. |
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