|
|
First,
the word "hear"
The principal word translated
"hear" in the NT is akouo. When we use the word
"hear" in the English language, to what do we often refer?
The word is often understood as the physical sense used to experience
sound. However, it is infrequently used to communicate an idea dealing
with what happens to the sound heard within the mind of the hearer.
Modern English vocabulary contains other words used to express
understanding. However, NT usage of the word "hear" may refer
to either the physical sense or the understanding of the words spoken.
Which is which depends upon the way the word is used in the Greek. For
example, Paul tells us in Acts
9:7 that the men which journeyed with him on the Damascus road
"stood speechless, hearing a voice, but seeing no man."
However, Luke's recording of the same event in Acts
22:9 states that "they heard not the voice of him that spake to
me." ("they" referring to the ones who were with him on the
Damascus road). Isn't this a clear contradiction within the scriptures? How could they have heard the voice in 9:7, but not hear
the voice in 22:9? I've provided a link to Vine's
dictionary to fully explain the differences, but in essence the key
difference is the case of the noun used in the Greek text. In 9:7 the
case indicates a sensory process (i.e. hearing the sound), but in 22:9 the
case indicates perception (i.e. understanding the sound heard). So, we
learn from these two verses that the men with Paul heard a voice with their
physical sense of hearing, but their mind failed to understand the words
being spoken by the voice.
Let's look at another example. We've
considered John
9:27 in an earlier study. Briefly, we see the man blind from birth that
tells the Pharisees how he regained his sight. When they asked a second
time how he regained his sight, he tells them, "I have told you already,
and ye did not hear: wherefore would ye hear it again?"
Clearly he is referring to their unwillingness to believe the sounds they
heard through the words spoken by the formerly blind man. In a similar
vein, Jesus tells the Pharisees in John
8:43 and 44 that they did not understand His speech because "ye
cannot hear My word." Why was it not possible for them to hear His
word? He tells us in verse
44: They were of their father, the devil! (For those of you
who were wondering, the Greek word used in verse
43 for "cannot" is ou--the word indicating an absolute
negative. See our study on Baptism, under the section dealing with
Baptism for the Dead for further information). So Jesus tells the Pharisees
that they were absolutely unable to "hear" His word, since they
were children of the devil. Was there something wrong with their
ears? No! There was something wrong with their hearts!
Being children of the devil they were incapable of understanding His words
and applying them to their lives. Does the 8th chapter of John seem
familiar? If you've gone through our study on "Who is a
Christian" it will. Remember how we spent quite a bit of time
dealing with Jesus' statement that "If ye continue in My word, then are
ye my disciples indeed;"? This is recorded in John
8:31. John 8:43 is contained within the same discourse between
Jesus and the Pharisees! What did we conclude any word spoken by man as
religious doctrine but which differs from Jesus' word constitutes? We
showed how such a "word" is born of the devil, and practicing such
worship is in vain. How do people today differ from the Pharisees of
old in this regard? They don't! Jesus summarizes this in verse
47 of the same chapter: "He that is of God heareth God's
words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of
God." Jesus told us in verse 43 that he is not speaking of the
physical sense of hearing. So, in verse 47, those who are of God understand,
believe, and apply His word to their lives (He that is of God heareth God's
words). Any one who fails to do any one of these three is not of
God. Do we read of a third option in these verses? No!
Jesus tells us that we are either of God, or of the devil. There is no
in-between mentioned by Jesus in this discourse. If we understand,
believe, and apply His words to our lives, we are of God. If we believe
the words of man rather than those of Jesus, we are not of God. If we
are not of God, we are of the devil. If we are of the devil, what is
our eternal fate? Jesus tells us in Matthew
25:41: we will spend eternity in everlasting fire, prepared for the
devil and his angels.
Jesus shows us again in Matthew
13:13 how we can hear words, but not understand the meaning of the words
spoken. The disciples asked Jesus why he spoke in parables. He
replied that he did so "because they seeing see not; and hearing they
hear not, neither do they understand." Were these people capable
of hearing the words spoken by Jesus (that is, was their sense of hearing
intact)? Yes. He said that "hearing they hear
not." If their physical sense of hearing had been impaired Jesus
would not have used such a phrase. However, their understanding of the
words He spoke was lacking. For this reason He spoke to them in
parables. Let's continue through the next few verses. Jesus
continues His thoughts on hearing but not understanding. Verse
14: "By hearing ye shall hear, and not understand;", verse
15: "For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears
are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they
should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand
with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal
them." Clearly their problem was one of the heart, not of the
physical sense of hearing.
|
