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Next,
the word "Sinner"
We must understand what the word
"Sinner" means in our question before proceeding any further.
Let's begin our examination of this word in Romans
3:23. Here we read words familiar to most, if not all, of us:
"For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;".
Before we go on, we must understand the word "all" used in this
verse. We have examined in detail the doctrine of original
sin, and
shown it to be a false doctrine. Does Romans 3:23 refute our earlier
study? Well, let's see. First, we must discover the reason(s) we
sin. God has not left us "in the dark" when it comes to
answering these issues. His word tells us all we need to know to be
complete in Him (2
Tim 3:16,17). James shows us what is necessary for one to sin (James
1:13). First, one is tempted. But what must one have in order
to be tempted? Lust (verse
14). Is lust alone enough to sin? No. Lust must
"conceive" in order to bring forth sin. So, if one resists
temptation and does not allow their lust to "conceive", they have
not sinned. But Romans tells us that no one (other than Christ) has
been successful in preventing completely the lust within them from
conceiving, so all have sinned.
But are children included in Paul's
statement in Romans 3:23? If they are, then they must have lust that
they have allowed to conceive, bringing forth sin. If children have
sinned, will they enter heaven should they die as children? No.
Recall from our prior studies how those who die in their sins are absolutely
unable to enter the kingdom of heaven (John
8:21). Did Jesus teach that children would enter the kingdom of
heaven should they die? Yes. Consider Matthew
18:3. Jesus tells the disciples "except ye be converted and
become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of
heaven." Here Jesus tells us who will fail to enter the kingdom of
heaven--those who fail to become as little children. What does this
tell us about little children? They will enter the kingdom of heaven
should they die. If adults must become as little children to enter the
kingdom of heaven, those who are already little children WILL enter heaven
should they die in that state. Now, since we know little children will
enter heaven should they die, are they sinners? No. Those who die
in their sins are absolutely unable to enter the kingdom of heaven.
Since they are not sinners, are they in a clean state because they were
washed of their sin, or do they not yet have sin? Again recall from our
prior studies what one must do in order to have their sin forgiven:
They must hear the word, believe the word, repent of sin, confess Jesus' name
before men, and be baptized for the remission of sin. Does the word
"hear" in the preceding sentence refer to the physical act of
hearing, or to the understanding of the word spoken? Both. We see
in example after example recorded in Acts that other men taught those being
converted. However, once they heard the word with their ears they had
to understand, believe, and apply the word to their lives.
Understanding the word taught leads to the type of belief necessary to
achieve forgiveness of sin (again, the word is pisteuo and is
comprised of three components: a firm conviction, producing a full
acknowledgement of God's revelation or truth; a personal surrender to Him; a
conduct inspired by such surrender. This is not mere credence that
Jesus walked on this earth as a man 2000 years ago. It is a total
surrender of one's will to His will. See Vine's for additional
information.) How can a child be expected to fulfill these requirements
if they cannot understand the word spoken, and are incapable of confessing
from the heart their belief in Jesus Christ as the Son of God? They
can't. Therefore, is a child washed of sin or yet to commit sin?
They have not yet committed sin. Since they have not yet committed sin,
do they have no lust or have they not yet failed to prevent their lust from
conceiving, bringing forth sin? I cannot say from the scriptures.
It is a moot point anyway. We know a child has not committed sin;
why they have not committed sin is irrelevant. We know they will
eventually commit sin as they allow their lust to conceive and bring forth
sin. It is only common sense that one must have lust before one can
allow it to conceive, so the lust must come before the failure to prevent its
conception. But what time lapses between the appearance of lust and the
conception of such lust is unknown to me.
So we see from the scriptures that Romans
3:23 does not refute our prior study regarding original sin. Original
sin is a man-made doctrine with no support within the Word of God.
Romans 3:23 tells us that all who are of age to have lust and to allow such
lust to conceive have done so, and thereby have committed sin. But we
know that not all of these sinners will spend eternity in hell. So
let's return to our evaluation of the word "Sinner." We know
that all have sinned, but are all "sinners"? You're probably
asking "What does this question mean, are all those who have sinned
sinners?" Of course, all who have sinned were at one time sinners,
but do they remain so? This is the question I wish to address now.
You recall how I decided to title my web
site, "So you want to go to heaven...". Since you are reading
these words I'm sure that is your desire. God in His mercy and grace
has provided a way for sinful man to enter heaven and enjoy its glory for
eternity. But we cannot pass through the gates into heaven with
unforgiven sin. In our Sunday morning Bible class we are currently
studying the book of Romans. The past two weeks we've discussed Jesus
as the propitiation for our sins. "Propitiation" is a word
I'm sure few of us have ever used in every day conversation outside a Bible
study dealing with this word. The Greek word is hilasterion, and
simply means "mercy seat." Remember from the old covenant how
the high priest would enter the holy of holies once every year, carrying blood
that would be sprinkled on the mercy seat (the lid covering the ark of the
covenant) for atonement of the sins of the people? However, one great
limitation to the old law was the fact that the blood of bulls and goats
offered year after year could never achieve the forgiveness of sin (Hebrews
10:4). So Jesus, by the will of God and His own sacrifice, laid
down His life for the sins of the world. His blood was sprinkled on the
mercy seat for us. This precious sacrifice was so much superior to that
of bulls and goats--by it we have true forgiveness of sin. What happened
to the veil separating the sanctuary of the temple from the holy of holies at
Jesus' death? It was torn in two, from top to bottom (Matthew
27:51)! No longer was access to God restricted by the veil.
We now have access directly to the Father through the flesh of Jesus Christ,
which he offered, for our forgiveness (Hebrews
10:18-20). See the powerful meaning of
"propitiation"? Why would anyone wish to return to the
religious practices of the old law with its manifold limitations? Each
and every one of us may approach the throne of God, but only if we have
submitted our lives and wills to Him!
Let's return briefly to Acts
22:16. Paul is recounting the events that took place on the
Damascus road, and after he met Ananias. Ananias told Paul to
"arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of
the Lord." In an earlier study we've seen how Paul was still a
sinner when he entered Damascus, blind from the glory of the light that shone
round about him. Not until he submitted to the commandments of God were
his sins washed away. Was Paul different after his baptism? He
most certainly was! All the sins he committed prior to his baptism were
washed away! Did he never again sin? Yes he did. Please
turn to 1
John 1:8-10. John clearly states that the people to whom he was
writing would sin. He went so far as to say that if they stated they
have not sinned they make God a liar! But was John writing to Christians
or non-Christians? To Christians! What pronoun did John use in
1:8? "We." Would John sin again? Yes! He
included himself among those to whom he was writing when he said, "if we
say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves,". Turn now to verse
7 of chapter 2. How does he refer to the recipients of his
letter? "Brethren." These were fellow Christians to
whom John was writing this epistle. Clearly, John and those who had
submitted to the will of God in obedience would continue to sin. But
how did they differ from those who had never been obedient? They ceased
committing "willful" sin. What is "willful" sin?
Willful sin is that sin committed voluntarily or willingly. For
example, if I as a Christian know it is wrong to steal but steal anyway, I
have committed willful sin. I have voluntarily submitted my actions to
serve the purpose of Satan. We read in Hebrews
10:26 that there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins for those who sin
willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth. Since there no
longer remains a sacrifice for such sin, these sins are not forgiven unless
repented of. But, for those who don't sin willingly the blood of Jesus
"cleanseth" us from all sin (1
John 1:7). The word "cleanseth" is a powerful statement
of the magnitude of grace given to those who are obedient to the commandments
of God. "Cleanseth" indicates an active and ongoing cleansing
of sin committed by the Christian. Since these brethren continued to
sin, but there remained a sacrifice for them, what can we say about the sin
they committed? It was not voluntary (willful). None of us can
live our lives free of sin. However, we can live our lives free of
willful sin. If we have been obedient to the will of God the blood of
Jesus actively washes us clean of the involuntary sin we commit.
Let's return to a consideration of the word
"sinner." We see from the scriptures that there are two
general groups of people living today who have passed the "age of
accountability" (i.e. the age at which one is capable of understanding
right from wrong): Those who have been obedient to the will of God and
have had their sins washed away, and those who haven't. However, the
group of obedient people consists of those who remain faithful, and those who
resume committing willful sin. Those who never have been obedient and
those who were obedient but resumed willful sin do not have access to the
cleansing blood of Christ. They are "sinners" in the purest
form of the word. However, those who are obedient and remain faithful
have their sins continually washed by the blood of Jesus. In our
original question "Does God hear a sinner's prayer", the word
"sinner" refers to the group of people who have never been
obedient, or who were obedient but resumed voluntary sin. Now, let's
find the answer to our question.
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